Example-1.4.4(problem-IMO 1978)(newbook)

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sm.joty
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Example-1.4.4(problem-IMO 1978)(newbook)

Unread post by sm.joty » Fri Oct 28, 2011 3:56 pm

I cant understand this example. Can anyone explain this ,
Since\[ 1 \leq a_1, 2 ≤ a_2, . . . , n \leq a_n\]

how ?
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Re: Example-1.4.4(problem-IMO 1978)(newbook)

Unread post by *Mahi* » Fri Oct 28, 2011 7:54 pm

The example states that, $a_1 \leq a_2 \leq \cdots a_n$ and $a_i$s are positive integers. So the least value of $a_1$ can be $1$ and as $a_1 \not = a_2$ so $a_2$ can be at least $2$. Continuing this argument we can derive $1 \leq a_1, 2 ≤ a_2, . . . , n \leq a_n$.
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Re: Example-1.4.4(problem-IMO 1978)(newbook)

Unread post by sm.joty » Sat Oct 29, 2011 10:38 am

Many many thanks to MAHI vai.
হার জিত চিরদিন থাকবেই
তবুও এগিয়ে যেতে হবে.........
বাধা-বিঘ্ন না পেরিয়ে
বড় হয়েছে কে কবে.........

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Unread post by *Mahi* » Sat Oct 29, 2011 6:06 pm

The problem is on a different topic than the previous one. So I think the last two post should better be moved to a new topic.
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