This is wrong.My first approach was correct.My mistake was assuming $(M,MA)$ and $N,(NA)$ passes through the feet of the perpendiculars of $M,N$ on $AF,BF$,respectively.Now edited and I hope it is okay now.asif e elahi wrote:Why $O_{1}O_{2} \parallel MN$?tanmoy wrote:Because then $OF \perp O_{1}O_{2}$ and as $O_{1}O_{2} \parallel MN$,so we will be done
A Problem of Romanian TST
"Questions we can't answer are far better than answers we can't question"